Cessna 172S Steam IR Regulations — Instrument Rating Oral Questions

DPE oral questions · ir regulations

32 questions a DPE may ask in this section

1. Question 1 · IR.I.A.K1

   What are the minimum aeronautical experience requirements to be eligible for an Instrument Rating (airplane)?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC (at least 10 hours in airplanes for airplane IR)
   • 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time
   • 15 of the 40 hours must be with an authorized CFII
   • The 15 hours must include one cross-country: 250 NM along airways/ATC routing, IAP at each airport, 3 different approach types, filed IFR
   • 3 hours of instrument flight training within 2 calendar months preceding the practical test

   Common wrong answers

   • Confusing total flight time with cross-country PIC time
   • Missing the 10-hour airplane requirement
   • Not knowing the 250 NM cross-country specifics

   Source14 CFR §61.65(d); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.3

2. Question 2 · IR.I.A.K1

   What are the IFR recent flight experience requirements to act as PIC under IFR (the '6 HITS' rule)?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Within the preceding 6 calendar months: 6 instrument approaches
   • Holding procedures and tasks
   • Intercepting and tracking courses through navigational electronic systems
   • Tasks can be completed in actual IMC, simulated IMC, or an approved FFS/FTD/ATD
   • The device must represent the category of aircraft for the rating being maintained
   • No flight instructor required for simulator currency — can self-certify with a safety pilot

   Common wrong answers

   • Confusing 6 approaches with 3 (VFR night landing currency)
   • Thinking only approaches count — holding and tracking are also required
   • Believing a CFII must be present for simulator currency

   Source14 CFR §61.57(c); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.3–4

3. Question 3 · IR.I.A.K1

   Your IFR currency expired 8 months ago. You want to fly IFR to pick up a passenger. What are your options?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • After 6 calendar months of expired currency, the ONLY path to reestablish is an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC)
   • IPC administered by a CFII, examiner, or other authorized person
   • IPC must cover: ATC clearances and procedures, flight by reference to instruments, navigation systems, instrument approaches, emergency operations, post-flight procedures
   • Some IPC tasks may be completed in an approved FTD or ATD per the ACS
   • You CANNOT fly the IFR flight with a safety pilot to 'practice back' to currency — that window closed after 6 months

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking you can still use a safety pilot after 12 months if you haven't flown IFR
   • Confusing IPC with a flight review
   • Believing the 6-month grace period restarts after any instrument flight

   Source14 CFR §61.57(d); FAA-S-ACS-8C; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.4

4. Question 4 · IR.I.A.K1

   What are the safety pilot requirements for flying simulated IMC for currency?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Holds at least a Private Pilot Certificate in the appropriate category and class
   • Holds a valid medical certificate or BasicMed
   • Has adequate forward and side vision from their seat
   • The aircraft must have a dual control system
   • The safety pilot acts as required crew — they must occupy a control seat
   • If safety pilot acts as PIC, they must be rated and current in the aircraft

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking a student pilot can be a safety pilot
   • Forgetting the aircraft must have dual controls
   • Not knowing BasicMed is acceptable for a safety pilot

   Source14 CFR §61.57(c)(1); §91.109(b); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.4

5. Question 5 · IR.I.A.K1

   What is the difference between being IFR current and IFR proficient?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Currency is a legal standard — meeting the minimum 6 HITS requirements of §61.57(c)
   • Proficiency is a safety standard — having the actual skills to operate safely in the IFR environment
   • A pilot can be legally current but dangerously unproficient (e.g., logged 6 approaches in an ATD months ago, hasn't flown actual IMC in a year)
   • Personal minimums should reflect actual proficiency, not just legal currency
   • The ACS addresses this as a risk management item under ADM

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking currency equals safety
   • Not understanding that currency is the floor, not the ceiling

   Source14 CFR §61.57(c); FAA-S-ACS-8C IR.I.A.R1; PHAK Chapter 2 (FAA-H-8083-25C); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.4

6. Question 6 · IR.I.A.K1

   What does §91.185 require if you experience two-way radio communication failure in IFR conditions?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Route: fly the AVEF hierarchy — Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed
   • Altitude: fly the MEA hierarchy — highest of Minimum, Expected, Assigned
   • If in VMC when comm fails: land as soon as practicable
   • If in IMC: squawk 7600, fly route/altitude per AVEF/MEA, leave clearance limit at last ATC-assigned time or ETA (whichever is later)
   • At clearance limit: hold until the expect-further-clearance time, then begin approach
   • Begin descent/approach as close as possible to expected or filed ETA

   Common wrong answers

   • Flying the wrong altitude (MEA is the HIGHEST of the three choices, not the published MEA alone)
   • Forgetting to squawk 7600
   • Going to the IAF before reaching the clearance limit
   • Not holding at the clearance limit

   Source14 CFR §91.185; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.18

7. Question 7 · IR.I.C.K1

   What is required preflight information for an IFR flight? Use the NW KRAFT mnemonic.

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • N — NOTAMs
   • W — Weather reports and forecasts
   • K — Known ATC delays
   • R — Runway lengths of intended use
   • A — Alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned
   • F — Fuel requirements
   • T — Takeoff and landing performance data
   • Required by §91.103 — 'pilot in command shall become familiar with all available information'

   Common wrong answers

   • Not knowing the specific elements required by §91.103
   • Thinking this is a VFR-only requirement
   • Missing performance data as a required element

   Source14 CFR §91.103; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

8. Question 8 · IR.I.C.K2

   What are the IFR fuel requirements under 14 CFR Part 91?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Must carry enough fuel to: (1) complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; (2) fly from that airport to the alternate airport (if required); AND (3) fly 45 minutes at normal cruising speed after that
   • The alternate fuel leg is not required if no alternate is required (i.e., 1-2-3 rule is met or no alternate airport filing required)
   • For helicopters: 30 minutes reserve (not 45)

   Common wrong answers

   • Forgetting the 45-minute reserve after the alternate
   • Applying helicopter fuel rules to airplanes
   • Thinking you need alternate fuel when no alternate is required

   Source14 CFR §91.167; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

9. Question 9 · IR.I.C.K2

   Explain the 1-2-3 alternate rule. When is a filed alternate required?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • An alternate is NOT required if: for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after your ETA, the destination TAF (or forecast) shows ceiling ≥2,000 feet above airport elevation AND visibility ≥3 statute miles
   • If either condition is not met for that 2-hour window, an alternate MUST be filed
   • Both ceiling AND visibility must meet the standard simultaneously
   • If no IAP is published for the destination, an alternate is always required

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking 3 SM visibility alone satisfies the rule
   • Applying alternate minimums (600/2 or 800/2) to the destination instead of the 1-2-3 rule
   • Not knowing both ceiling AND visibility must be met

   Source14 CFR §91.169(b); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

10. Question 10 · IR.I.C.K2

    What are the standard alternate airport weather minimums, and where do non-standard minimums appear?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Precision approach at alternate: ceiling 600 feet AGL and visibility 2 statute miles
    • Non-precision approach at alternate: ceiling 800 feet AGL and visibility 2 statute miles
    • Use published alternate minimums from the approach chart if they exist (denoted by an inverted triangle 'A' on the approach chart)
    • If 'NA' appears: alternate minimums not authorized (unmonitored facility, no weather reporting, inadequate nav coverage)
    • If no instrument approach is available at the alternate: ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR

    Common wrong answers

    • Applying the 1-2-3 rule to the alternate (it applies to the destination)
    • Not knowing to check for non-standard alternate minimums on the chart
    • Using ILS landing minimums (200/2) as alternate minimums

    Source14 CFR §91.169(c); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

11. Question 11 · IR.I.C.K2

    What are the GPS alternate filing rules for non-WAAS vs. WAAS GPS?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Non-WAAS GPS: may base alternate on GPS approach IF the destination has a non-GPS conventional approach — you cannot rely on GPS for BOTH destination and alternate simultaneously
    • WAAS GPS (without baro-VNAV): may file the alternate based on LNAV or circling minimums at the alternate — LPV minimums cannot be used for alternate planning
    • Rationale: GPS RAIM/WAAS integrity cannot be guaranteed for both legs simultaneously during flight planning
    • Always check GPS NOTAMs for outages along route and at alternate

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking a WAAS GPS can use LPV minimums for alternate planning (it cannot)
    • Not knowing the non-WAAS 'one or the other' rule
    • Confusing approach minimums used for planning vs. what you can actually fly on arrival

    SourceAIM 1-1-17(b)(5); AIM 1-1-18(c)(9); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

12. Question 12 · IR.I.A.K1

    What IFR equipment is required by 14 CFR §91.205(d)? Use the GRAB CARD mnemonic.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • G — Generator or alternator
    • R — Radios (navigation and communication appropriate for route)
    • A — Altimeter (sensitive)
    • B — Ball (slip/skid indicator)
    • C — Clock (with hours, minutes, and seconds)
    • A — Attitude indicator
    • R — Rate-of-turn indicator
    • D — Directional gyro (heading indicator)
    • Also required: DME at FL240+ over 50 NM from a VOR (§91.205(e))
    • Plus the standard VFR-day equipment (ATOMATOFLAMES) plus night equipment

    Common wrong answers

    • Missing the ball (slip/skid indicator)
    • Not knowing a clock with seconds is required
    • Forgetting DME requirement at FL240+

    Source14 CFR §91.205(d); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.12

13. Question 13 · IR.II.A.K3

    What VOR accuracy checks are required for IFR flight? Use the DEPS mnemonic for the logbook entry.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • VOR checks required within the preceding 30 days for IFR flight
    • VOR Test Facility (VOT): ±4° tolerance; ground or airborne
    • Ground checkpoint (published): ±4° tolerance
    • Dual VOR check (both VORs tuned same VOR, reading each other): within 4° of each other
    • Airborne checkpoint (published): ±6° tolerance
    • DEPS logbook entry: Date, Error, Place, Signature

    Common wrong answers

    • Not knowing the airborne tolerance is ±6° (not ±4°)
    • Forgetting the 30-day requirement
    • Missing required logbook entry elements

    Source14 CFR §91.171; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.12

14. Question 14 · IR.II.A.K3

    What aircraft documents are required to be on board for flight? Use the ARROW mnemonic.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • A — Airworthiness Certificate
    • R — Registration Certificate
    • R — Radio Station License (required for international flights)
    • O — Operating Limitations (POH/AFM or placards)
    • W — Weight and Balance data

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking the radio license is required for all domestic flights (only required internationally)
    • Missing weight and balance data
    • Not knowing operating limitations includes placards and markings

    Source14 CFR §91.9; §91.203; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.5

15. Question 15 · IR.II.A.K3

    What maintenance inspections are required for IFR flight? Use the AVIATES mnemonic.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • A — Annual inspection (every 12 calendar months, §91.409)
    • V — VOR check (every 30 days for IFR, §91.171)
    • I — IFR certification of avionics/equipment (every 24 calendar months, §91.411 pitot-static; §91.413 transponder)
    • A — Altimeter/Pitot-static check (every 24 calendar months if used in IFR, §91.411)
    • T — Transponder check (every 24 calendar months, §91.413)
    • E — ELT (battery must be replaced after 1 cumulative hour use or 50% useful life; inspect every 12 months)
    • S — Static system/encoding altimeter: 24-month check for IFR ops

    Common wrong answers

    • Not knowing the 24-month check for pitot-static and transponder
    • Confusing ELT battery life rules
    • Thinking VOR check is annual

    Source14 CFR §91.171; §91.409; §91.411; §91.413; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.5

16. Question 16 · IR.I.A.R3

    You are planning an IFR flight. Your alternator failed last week and hasn't been fixed yet. The mechanic says it's a minor issue and the battery will last 2 hours. Your flight is 1.5 hours. What's your decision-making process?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • The aircraft is not airworthy — a failed alternator is an inoperative required equipment item under §91.205(d) (generator/alternator required for IFR)
    • §91.213 addresses inoperative equipment: if listed in the MEL as allowable, can fly; if not, aircraft is not airworthy
    • A Part 91 aircraft without an MEL: if the item is required by §91.205 or the aircraft type certificate, it CANNOT be deferred — must be repaired
    • Flying with a failed alternator under IFR would be illegal AND unsafe
    • The correct answer: do not fly IFR until repaired

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking a 2-hour battery reserve makes it acceptable
    • Not knowing the alternator is specifically required by §91.205(d) for IFR

    Source14 CFR §91.205(d); §91.213; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.5, 12

17. Question 17 · IR.I.B.R1

    You're filing IFR from KBOS to KJFK. The TAF for KJFK shows: from 1 hour before your ETA to 1 hour after, ceiling 1,800 feet and visibility 4 SM. Is an alternate required? If so, what are the minimums for a precision approach alternate?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Yes — alternate is REQUIRED because ceiling of 1,800 feet is BELOW the 2,000-foot threshold of the 1-2-3 rule (§91.169(b))
    • Even though visibility is 4 SM (above the 3 SM threshold), BOTH conditions must be met — one failure = alternate required
    • For a precision approach (ILS/LPV) at the alternate: ceiling 600 feet AGL and visibility 2 statute miles (§91.169(c))
    • Check if the alternate has published non-standard minimums (inverted 'A' triangle on approach chart)
    • Must also carry fuel to alternate plus 45 minutes (§91.167)

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking 4 SM visibility satisfies the rule alone
    • Using ILS landing minimums as alternate minimums
    • Not requiring an alternate because 'the weather looks okay'

    Source14 CFR §91.169(b), (c); §91.167; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

18. Question 18 · IR.I.A.R1

    Explain the difference between an ODP and a SID. You're departing a non-towered airport at night in IMC. Is the ODP mandatory?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • ODP (Obstacle Departure Procedure): provides obstacle clearance ONLY; may be textual or graphic; graphic ODPs titled '(OBSTACLE)'; NOT mandatory for Part 91 pilots — but highly recommended especially at night, marginal VMC, or IMC
    • SID (Standard Instrument Departure): provides obstacle clearance AND reduces pilot/controller workload; simplifies ATC clearances; always published graphically; may include special radio failure procedures
    • Standard DP climb assumption: cross DER at ≥35 ft AGL, reach 400 ft AGL before turning, climb at ≥200 FPNM unless published otherwise
    • Part 91 pilots are NOT required to fly an ODP unless ATC assigns it
    • BUT: not flying the ODP at night in IMC without knowing the terrain is extremely dangerous — strong recommendation to fly it

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking ODPs are mandatory for Part 91
    • Not knowing SID includes ATC workload reduction vs. ODP obstacle-only focus
    • Thinking the standard climb gradient is 300 FPNM (it's 200 FPNM)

    SourceAIM 5-2-9; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.7

19. Question 19 · IR.I.A.K1

    You're holding for release at a non-towered airport. You get your clearance by phone. The controller gives you a clearance void time of 15 minutes. You depart with 5 minutes to spare. Two minutes after takeoff at 1,500 feet AGL, you realize you forgot to squawk the code. You quickly set it and ATC immediately asks 'N12345, confirm you departed before the void time.' What should you say, and what was the risk if you hadn't departed before the void time?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Yes — confirm you departed before the void time (you did)
    • Risk of not departing before void time: ATC considers you still on the ground; they activate search and rescue procedures after a defined period (typically 30 minutes)
    • You MUST call ATC if you cannot depart before the void time — this is a requirement
    • The void time means the clearance is invalid after that point — you cannot legally depart IFR after the void time without a new clearance
    • Forgetting the squawk code was not the emergency here — failing to depart before void time would have been

    Common wrong answers

    • Not knowing you must contact ATC if unable to depart before void time
    • Not knowing ATC initiates SAR if they don't hear from you after the void time window
    • Thinking a wrong squawk code is a more serious error than a void time violation

    SourceAIM 5-2-6; 14 CFR §91.173; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.8

20. Question 20 · IR.I.A.K1

    What are the IFR transponder requirements? Does a transponder failure mean you cannot fly IFR?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • A transponder is required for IFR flight in specific airspace per §91.215 — NOT under §91.205(d). The GRAB CARD 'R' is Radio comm/nav equipment, not transponder. §91.215 alone governs transponder requirements.
    • §91.215 requires a Mode C transponder in Class A, B, and C airspace and above 10,000 feet MSL (except below 2,500 AGL)
    • If transponder fails: you may still fly IFR if ATC approves it — ATC can authorize operations without a transponder
    • For flight in Class A: transponder is absolutely required (part of IFR requirements for Class A)
    • For lower altitudes: contact ATC, request a waiver — they may accommodate on a case-by-case basis
    • Note: the question from a famous Reddit thread — 'Can you fly IFR without a transponder? (you can)' — yes, if ATC approves for that specific flight

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking a transponder failure means no IFR flight at all
    • Not knowing ATC can authorize transponder-off operations
    • Forgetting Mode C is required above 10,000 MSL except within 2,500 AGL

    Source14 CFR §91.215; §91.205(d); AIM 4-1-20; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.12

21. Question 21 · IR.III.A.K1

    ATC clears you: 'N12345, cleared to KBOS via present position direct BDL, V44 PVD, climb and maintain 6,000, expect 10,000 in 10 minutes, departure 124.4, squawk 4317.' You lose comms 8 minutes after takeoff before reaching your expected altitude. What altitude do you fly?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Under §91.185(c)(2) — altitude: the HIGHEST of:
    • (1) Last assigned altitude — 6,000 feet
    • (2) Altitude ATC has told you to expect — 10,000 feet (but only after the stated 10-minute expectation time)
    • (3) Minimum IFR altitude (MEA/MORA for the route segment)
    • At 8 minutes: the 10-minute expectation has not elapsed; fly 6,000 or MEA, whichever is higher
    • After 10 minutes have elapsed since the clearance was received (10-minute clock starts from clearance): climb to 10,000 unless MEA is higher
    • Key nuance: clock for 'expect' starts when clearance received, not when comms are lost

    Common wrong answers

    • Flying to expected altitude immediately without waiting for the time to expire
    • Not knowing MEA must be compared and the highest of three is chosen
    • Forgetting the clock starts from clearance receipt

    Source14 CFR §91.185(c)(2); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.18

22. Question 22 · IR.I.A.K2

    What are the aircraft document requirements for any flight? (ARROW mnemonic)

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • A — Airworthiness Certificate (must be displayed, visible to passengers)
    • R — Registration Certificate (on board)
    • R — Radio Station License (for international flights; not required for domestic US)
    • O — Operating Handbook/Pilot's Operating Handbook (or Airplane Flight Manual — on board)
    • W — Weight and Balance (current, appropriate to the aircraft configuration)
    • For IFR: also ensure airworthiness with all MEL items resolved and required IFR equipment operable

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking radio license is required for all flights (domestic only = no)
    • Not knowing weight and balance must be current and aboard
    • Confusing AFM with POH (AFM is FAA-approved; POH may or may not be)

    Source14 CFR §91.9; §91.203; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.5

23. Question 23 · IR.I.A.K2

    What are the required aircraft inspections for IFR operations? (AVIATES mnemonic)

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • A — Annual inspection: required every 12 calendar months (§91.409)
    • V — VOR check: required every 30 calendar days for IFR (§91.171)
    • I — IFR static, altimeter, and transponder checks: within the preceding 24 calendar months (§91.411 and §91.413)
    • A — AD compliance: Airworthiness Directives must be complied with per their requirements
    • T — Transponder: inspected every 24 calendar months (§91.413)
    • E — ELT battery: replace after 1 cumulative hour of use or 50% of battery life (§91.207)
    • S — Static system and altimeter: inspected and tested every 24 calendar months (§91.411)

    Common wrong answers

    • Confusing the 30-day VOR check with 24-month altimeter/transponder inspections
    • Not knowing the 24-month altimeter and static system inspection is IFR-specific
    • Forgetting ELT inspection requirements

    Source14 CFR §91.409, §91.171, §91.411, §91.413, §91.207; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.5

24. Question 24 · IR.II.A.K1

    When is an aircraft considered inoperative for MEL (Minimum Equipment List) purposes and what are the alternatives?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • If no MEL exists for the aircraft: must comply with Kind of Operations Equipment List (KOEL) in the POH, or Kinds of Operations (Day VFR, Night VFR, IFR) list in the AFM
    • Inoperative equipment: if not on MEL as deferrable, the item must be repaired before flight
    • MEL is FAA-approved and specific to aircraft make/model/serial number — not generic
    • Without MEL: pilot and A&P must determine if inoperative equipment makes the aircraft unairworthy — using PAVE checklist for regulations (§91.213)
    • §91.213(d): For aircraft WITHOUT MEL — inoperative equipment that is not required by airworthiness directives, is not required for VFR/IFR day/night, is not required by §91.205, AND is placarded INOPERATIVE — may be inoperative for flight
    • IFR equipment failure: if a required IFR instrument (GRAB CARD) is inoperative, the aircraft is NOT airworthy for IFR

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking any inoperative equipment automatically grounds the aircraft
    • Not knowing §91.213(d) provides a path to fly without MEL if the item is placarded
    • Confusing MEL (aircraft-specific FAA document) with POH equipment list

    Source14 CFR §91.213; 14 CFR §91.205; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.5

25. Question 25 · IR.III.A.K1

    Can you fly IFR without a transponder in controlled airspace?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Yes, under certain conditions — transponder is NOT required for ALL IFR flight
    • Transponder required: Class A, B, C airspace; above 10,000 feet MSL within 48 contiguous states (unless below 2,500 AGL); within 30 NM of Class B primary airport (Mode C veil)
    • IFR in Class E or G airspace below 10,000 feet and outside the Mode C veil: transponder NOT required by §91.215
    • However: §91.215(d) allows ATC to request transponder-equipped aircraft when practicable, and ATC can coordinate IFR flight without transponder in some situations
    • Practical: if your transponder fails IFR — you may still fly if outside transponder-required airspace; in transponder-required airspace, must get ATC authorization first
    • Many pilots don't know this — the IFR checkride candidate tripped up in the Reddit thread because they assumed transponder is always required for IFR

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking transponder is always required for IFR
    • Not knowing Class A and B require Mode C specifically
    • Confusing the Mode C veil (30 NM of Class B) with all controlled airspace

    Source14 CFR §91.215; 14 CFR

26. Question 26 · IR.I.A.K1

    Under §91.185, what does the acronym AVEF define for lost comms route selection?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • A — Assigned route: the route that ATC last assigned in the clearance
    • V — Vectored route: if being radar vectored, the direct route to the fix or route specified in the vector
    • E — Expected route: the route ATC told you to expect, or issued as an 'expect' clearance
    • F — Filed route: the route you filed on your IFR flight plan
    • Priority: use in order A → V → E → F — if assigned, use that first; if only expected, use expected; filed is last resort
    • Combined with MEA altitude rule: AVEF and MEA apply simultaneously — you navigate AVEF and fly MEA altitude

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking it's just 'fly the filed route'
    • Not knowing 'vectored' means direct to the fix you were being vectored to
    • Confusing AVEF with AVIATE (emergency priority memory aid)

    Source14 CFR §91.185(c)(1); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.18

27. Question 27 · IR.III.B.K1

    You are cleared for the approach and the tower clears you to land on Runway 18. As you descend through 500 AGL, you spot a small aircraft on final that is not talking to anyone and appears to be on your approach. What do you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Aviate first: maintain aircraft control on the approach
    • Communicate: advise the tower immediately of the conflict — 'traffic on final, potential conflict'
    • Execute missed approach if required for safety — §91.3 gives you authority to deviate from clearance for safety
    • The tower may issue a 'go around' instruction — comply
    • ATC is responsible for sequencing, but in VMC the pilot maintains see-and-avoid responsibility
    • Key ADM: do not assume the other aircraft will give way — anticipate and act conservatively
    • After missed approach: request new approach clearance or landing instructions

    Common wrong answers

    • Continuing approach and hoping traffic moves
    • Not reporting to ATC immediately
    • Not knowing §91.3 gives authority to deviate from ATC clearance for safety

    Source14 CFR §91.3; 14 CFR §91.113; AIM 4-4-11

28. Question 28 · IR.I.A.K1

    What are the Part 91 minimum IFR altitudes for cruising en-route, and what does §91.177 require?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • §91.177 requires that IFR flight at or above the MEA and MCA for the route segment
    • In non-mountainous terrain: at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the course
    • In mountainous terrain: at least 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the course
    • Mountainous areas defined in 14 CFR Part 95 (specific geographic areas)
    • Over sparsely populated areas with no high obstacles: minimum 1,000 feet above highest obstacle within 4 NM
    • These minimums are translated to published MEAs on airways — if flying off-airway, you calculate using the 1,000/2,000 rules
    • OROCA (Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude): provides obstacle clearance in non-mountainous areas but NOT guaranteed navigation signal

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking 1,000 feet always applies everywhere
    • Not knowing mountainous terrain requires 2,000 feet
    • Confusing MEA with MOCA — MEA = both obstacle AND navigation signal; MOCA = obstacle only

    Source14 CFR §91.177; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.16

29. Question 29 · IR.I.A.K1

    You are an instrument-rated pilot flying a non-towered field in Class G airspace. The conditions are 1,000 AGL overcast and 3 SM visibility. Can you depart VFR?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Class G airspace VFR minimums: Day — 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds (below 1,200 AGL)
    • Conditions: 3 SM and 1,000 AGL ceiling → 3 SM visibility exceeds the 1 SM Class G day minimum; 1,000 AGL ceiling → cloud clearance is the question
    • Class G below 1,200 AGL day: only 1 SM visibility and CLEAR OF CLOUDS
    • At 1,000 AGL, you would be in the overcast cloud layer — you cannot be 'clear of clouds' at 1,000 AGL
    • However: if you stay below 1,000 AGL in Class G, you can depart and remain clear of clouds with 1 SM visibility
    • Practical issue: 'clear of clouds' at 1,000 AGL requires you stay below the overcast
    • If you need to climb through the overcast to IFR altitude: you need an IFR clearance — you cannot climb VFR into the overcast

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking 3 SM and 1,000 AGL always allows VFR departure regardless
    • Not knowing Class G minimum is 1 SM and clear of clouds (below 1,200 AGL)
    • Thinking you can climb VFR into an overcast layer

    Source14 CFR §91.155; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.3

30. Question 30 · IR.I.A.K1

    You are flying IFR and your clearance was to maintain 7,000 feet. ATC tells you: 'Descend pilot's discretion to 5,000.' What does this mean and when do you descend?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Pilot's discretion descent: you may descend at any time and at any rate you choose — but you must reach the clearance altitude (5,000) before reaching the fix/point/time ATC expects
    • You may delay the descent or start it immediately — your choice
    • Once you have left an altitude during a pilot's discretion descent: you cannot return to the higher altitude without ATC clearance
    • Example: if you start descending from 7,000 to 5,000 but want to go back to 7,000 mid-descent — you need a new clearance
    • Compare to 'descend and maintain': an explicit instruction to descend now without discretion
    • Practical use: PD descent allows you to time your descent for fuel efficiency or to avoid turbulence at intermediate altitudes

    How a DPE follows up

    • If you saySays they'll start descending immediately

      DPE follow-upPilot's discretion — is there a time limit? Must you reach 5,000 by a specific time?

      What it testsNo specific time limit given here — but ATC expects the clearance to be complied with before a specific fix or event

    • If you sayCorrectly waits, then descends at own timing

      DPE follow-upYou start descending from 7,000 to 5,000. At 6,500 feet, ATC says 'maintain 7,000.' Can you go back up?

      What it testsYes, ATC clearance to maintain 7,000 overrides the pilot's discretion — comply with new clearance

    SourceAIM 4-4-10; 14 CFR §91.185

31. Question 31 · IR.I.A.K1

    What is Special VFR and when can an instrument-rated pilot use it?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Special VFR (SVFR): allows a pilot to operate in a control zone at less than standard VFR minimums when ATC authorizes it
    • Must be requested by pilot — ATC cannot initiate SVFR
    • Daytime SVFR requires: at least 1 SM flight visibility and clear of clouds
    • Nighttime SVFR: requires both pilot and aircraft to be IFR-certified — pilot must hold IR and aircraft must be IFR-equipped
    • SVFR is prohibited in some Class B airspace (noted on charts with 'NO SVFR' or see specific chart notes)
    • SVFR is NOT an IFR clearance — it does not provide obstacle clearance guarantees; pilot remains responsible for terrain separation
    • SVFR flight in Class D does not require an IFR clearance — it is separate from IFR

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking SVFR provides obstacle clearance like IFR
    • Thinking daytime SVFR requires an instrument rating
    • Not knowing nighttime SVFR requires both IR and IFR-equipped aircraft

    Source14 CFR §91.157; AIM 4-4-6; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.3

32. Question 32 · IR.I.A.K1

    What is the difference between a Clearance Void Time and a Release Time in an IFR clearance?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Clearance Void Time: the time by which the aircraft must depart (be airborne) — if not airborne by this time, the clearance is void and must be re-obtained; used at non-towered airports without FSS
    • Release Time: the earliest time you may depart — ATC is holding traffic and will clear the departure sequence at or after this time; common with IFR departures from non-towered airports when ATC needs to sequence you
    • Hold for Release: ATC tells you to hold — you may NOT depart until released; used when ATC needs to create a gap in traffic
    • Practical: void times are a safety-critical time constraint — if you don't make it, you MUST notify ATC or SAR procedures activate after 30 minutes
    • At a towered airport: ATC manages the departure and issues explicit takeoff clearances — no void time or release time normally used

    Common wrong answers

    • Confusing void time (latest depart time) with release time (earliest depart time)
    • Not knowing SAR activates after 30 minutes post-void time without notification
    • Thinking hold for release and void time are the same

    SourceAIM 5-2-7; AIM 4-3-18