Cessna 172S Steam Instrument Approaches — Instrument Rating Oral Questions

DPE oral questions · instrument approaches

45 questions a DPE may ask in this section

1. Question 1 · IR.VI.B.K1

   What are the three conditions that must be met to descend below MDA or DA on an approach?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • 1. The aircraft must be continuously in a position from which a normal rate of descent to a landing can be made on the intended runway
   • 2. Flight visibility must not be less than the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used
   • 3. At least ONE of the 10 visual references for that runway must be distinctly visible and identifiable
   • The 10 visual references (§91.175(c)(3)): approach light system; threshold; threshold markings; threshold lights; REIL; VASI/PAPI; touchdown zone/markings/lights; runway; runway markings; runway lights
   • If ANY of these three conditions cease to be met below MDA/DA — execute an immediate missed approach

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking any single visual reference allows descent (must be from the list of 10)
   • Not knowing the 'continuously in position' requirement
   • Descending below MDA/DA based solely on approach light system sighting without checking visibility

   Source14 CFR §91.175(c); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

2. Question 2 · IR.VI.B.K1

   You can see the approach lights (ALS) only — no other visual references. What is the minimum you can descend to?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • If you can see the approach light system (ALS), you may descend to 100 feet above the TDZE (Touchdown Zone Elevation)
   • Exception: if you can also see the red terminating bars or the red side row bars, you may continue to land
   • If you see only the approach lights WITHOUT the red bars, you cannot descend below 100 feet above TDZE — that's your floor
   • This rule is from §91.175(c)(3)(i) — ALS alone justifies 100-foot TDZE floor, not full landing authorization

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking ALS alone allows you to land (it allows descent to 100 feet above TDZE only)
   • Not knowing the red bars exception
   • Confusing TDZE with airport elevation

   Source14 CFR §91.175(c)(3); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

3. Question 3 · IR.VI.B.K1

   On an ILS approach plate, what is the significance of the glideslope intercept altitude at the outer marker (or FAF equivalent), and when can you descend on the glideslope?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • The glideslope intercept altitude (shown on the profile view) is the altitude at which you capture the glideslope inbound
   • You may begin descent on the glideslope ONLY after: (1) you are established inbound on the localizer; (2) you have reached the published glideslope intercept altitude or the glideslope indicator shows 'fly down'
   • Descending below the glideslope intercept altitude before capturing the glideslope is a deviation and is unsafe
   • On a Category I ILS: DA is published in feet MSL on the plate; upon reaching DA, if visual references not met, execute missed approach IMMEDIATELY
   • ILS Categories: CAT I = 200 ft HAT / 2,400 ft RVR; CAT II = 100 ft HAT / 1,200 ft RVR

   Common wrong answers

   • Descending below glideslope intercept altitude on vectors before glideslope capture
   • Confusing DH (Decision Height) with MDH (Minimum Descent Height) — DH applies to precision, MDH to non-precision
   • Using 200 ft as the ILS minimum without understanding it's HAT above TDZE

   Source14 CFR §91.175; FAA-H-8083-16B Chapter 9; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

4. Question 4 · IR.VI.B.K1

   What approach minimum categories exist for ILS approaches, and what are the standard weather minimums for each?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • CAT I ILS: Decision Height (DH) 200 feet HAT; RVR 2,400 feet (or 1/2 SM visibility if no RVR available)
   • CAT II ILS: DH 100 feet HAT; RVR 1,200 feet; requires special aircraft certification, crew certification, and airport infrastructure
   • CAT IIIa: DH below 100 feet or no DH; RVR ≥700 feet
   • CAT IIIb: DH below 50 feet; RVR 150-700 feet
   • CAT IIIc: No DH, no RVR limit (autoland only) — not authorized in US
   • LPV approaches: may have DH as low as 200 feet HAT with appropriate WAAS GPS equipment; treated as precision for ACS purposes

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking CAT II is 200 ft (it's 100 ft)
   • Not knowing LPV can satisfy the precision approach task in the ACS
   • Confusing RVR with visibility in SM

   Source14 CFR §91.175; FAA-H-8083-16B; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

5. Question 5 · IR.VI.B.K1

   What are outer marker (OM) substitutes under §91.175(k)?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • The following may serve as OM substitutes for determining the precision final approach fix crossing point:
   • 1. Compass locator (LOM/LMM)
   • 2. Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
   • 3. Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)
   • 4. DME from the ILS station (co-located)
   • 5. VOR/NDB fix
   • 6. RNAV fix (GPS or other approved)
   • Mnemonic: use the published note on the plate indicating 'Compass locator or precision radar required' for CAT II/III

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking the OM is always required (substitutes are legally equivalent)
   • Not knowing DME can serve as an OM substitute
   • Confusing OM crossing with FAF crossing

   Source14 CFR §91.175(k); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

6. Question 6 · IR.VI.B.K1

   You're flying an RNAV (GPS) approach. The approach has LNAV, LNAV/VNAV, and LPV lines of minimums. You have a WAAS-capable GPS. Which line should you plan to fly and why?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Plan for LPV if your aircraft's WAAS GPS is certified for LPV approaches and LPV is available (WAAS signal within range)
   • LPV provides a glidepath (electronic vertical guidance) with lower minimums — typically near ILS CAT I performance (200 ft/2400 RVR)
   • LPV is treated as 'approved vertical guidance' under ACS-8C — satisfies the Precision Approach task (IR.VI.B)
   • LNAV/VNAV: barometric VNAV or WAAS — provides vertical guidance with typically higher minimums than LPV
   • LNAV: lateral navigation only; treated as non-precision (MDA instead of DA); highest minimums
   • The aircraft's avionics will automatically annunciate 'LPV' on the CDI when LPV is available — check before the FAF

   Common wrong answers

   • Defaulting to LNAV when LPV is available (flying higher minimums unnecessarily)
   • Thinking LPV is not a precision approach — under ACS-8C it satisfies the precision task
   • Not knowing when the avionics switch to LPV sensitivity

   SourceFAA-S-ACS-8C; AIM 5-4-18; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.16

7. Question 7 · IR.VI.B.K1

   You are shooting the ILS 28R at your destination. At DA you see only the approach lights with no red terminating bars. The visibility report was 1/2 SM — exactly at minimums. You're on centerline and on glideslope. What do you do?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • At DA with approach lights visible but NO red bars: you may descend to 100 feet above the TDZE ONLY — you cannot land yet
   • From 100 feet above TDZE: if the runway/threshold or other qualifying visual reference becomes visible, you may continue to land
   • If you reach 100 feet above TDZE with ONLY approach lights and no runway in sight: execute missed approach immediately
   • You must be continuously in a position to make a normal descent from that point
   • The visibility report (1/2 SM) must also not be below published minimums — but the visual reference requirement is independent of the reported visibility

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking ALS alone allows landing (only 100-foot TDZE floor, not landing authorization)
   • Executing missed approach at DA because runway isn't visible (ALS still allows further descent to 100 ft TDZE)
   • Not knowing the red bar exception for ALS

   Source14 CFR §91.175(c); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

8. Question 8 · IR.VI.B.K1

   What does a circling approach require, and what are the circling radii for each aircraft category?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • A circling approach is used when the final approach course is aligned more than 30° from the runway centerline, or for a straight-in approach where landing on the straight-in runway is not practical
   • Circling minimums are always higher than straight-in minimums
   • Category A (up to 90 kts): 1.3 NM radius
   • Category B (91-120 kts): 1.5 NM radius
   • Category C (121-140 kts): 1.7 NM radius
   • Category D (141-165 kts): 2.3 NM radius
   • Category E (>166 kts): 4.5 NM radius
   • If you lose visual contact while circling, execute immediate missed approach — climb on runway heading until at MDA, then published missed approach

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking circling radius is fixed for all aircraft
   • Not knowing Cat A is the most common (90 kts or less)
   • Not knowing what to do when losing visual contact while circling

   Source14 CFR §91.175; AIM 5-4-20; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.19

9. Question 9 · IR.VI.B.K1

   What is a no-procedure-turn indication on an approach plate? Use SHARP TT to remember the conditions.

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • NoPT (No Procedure Turn) means you may NOT make a procedure turn inbound on that approach segment
   • SHARP TT — conditions that require NoPT: Straight-in radar vector to final; Holding in lieu of procedure turn; ATC instruction to not make a procedure turn; Radar environment (ATC vectoring); PT is not authorized in the charted notes; Timed approach from a holding fix; Turn to the procedure turn altitude from above
   • The NoPT symbol (NoPT) appears in the plan view of the approach plate on the specific feeder course
   • If cleared for the approach from a holding fix on the procedure course, a procedure turn is NOT required

   Common wrong answers

   • Making a procedure turn when NoPT is in effect (causes a separation issue)
   • Not knowing radar vectors eliminate the need for a procedure turn
   • Thinking NoPT always means the approach is straight-in

   SourceAIM 5-4-9; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.18

10. Question 10 · IR.VI.B.K1

    You're on an RNAV GPS approach. You're established on final, 5 miles from the runway threshold. ATC says 'traffic, two miles, 2 o'clock, unknown altitude.' You're in solid IMC. What do you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • You are IFR in IMC — you cannot see traffic and cannot take visual avoidance action
    • Advise ATC: 'Unable visual traffic, IMC'
    • ATC is responsible for IFR separation — request a traffic advisory or breakout heading if needed
    • If ATC issues a breakout instruction, comply immediately — a breakout takes priority over everything including the approach
    • If you have TCAS (not common in GA) — follow TCAS RA over ATC if they conflict
    • If no ATC instruction comes and you have a collision threat: maneuver to avoid, then advise ATC

    Common wrong answers

    • Trying to visually acquire traffic in IMC (you can't)
    • Blindly continuing approach without alerting ATC
    • Not knowing ATC is responsible for IFR separation from other IFR traffic

    SourceAIM 5-5-15; 14 CFR §91.113

11. Question 11 · IR.VI.B.K1

    On an approach plate, you see a Maltese cross symbol at the FAF on a non-precision approach. What does it signify, and what is your required action when crossing it inbound?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Maltese cross = Final Approach Fix (FAF) symbol on non-precision approaches
    • At the FAF inbound: begin your final descent to MDA
    • Also: check the time (start FAF timer for timing to MAP if no DME or GPS distance to threshold)
    • Confirm approach configuration: gear down if retractable, prop forward if applicable
    • Begin 5Ts at FAF: Turn (confirm course), Time (start), Twist (OBS if applicable), Throttle (power for descent), Talk (ATC if required)

    Common wrong answers

    • Not starting the FAF timer for timed approaches
    • Confusing Maltese cross (non-precision FAF) with the lightning bolt (glide slope intercept)
    • Forgetting to confirm approach configuration at FAF

    SourceAIM 5-4-5; FAA-H-8083-16B Chapter 10; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.19

12. Question 12 · IR.VI.B.K1

    On an ILS approach plate, you see 'ALSF-2' in the lighting section. You also see a T with a triangle symbol in the plan view at a particular fix. What do each of these mean?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • ALSF-2: Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashing Lights, Type 2 — high-intensity system with red side bars; 3,000-foot system; allows descending to 100 feet above TDZE with ALS in sight before requiring runway environment visibility
    • T with triangle (Triangle with T): take-off minimums are not standard (or no take-off minimums published) and/or departure procedure notes exist — must check 'Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures' section of the TPP
    • If both T and inverted A appear: non-standard takeoff minimums AND non-standard alternate minimums exist

    Common wrong answers

    • Not knowing ALSF-2 vs. basic ALS differences
    • Not knowing the T-triangle symbol requires checking the TPP for non-standard takeoff minimums
    • Confusing the T-triangle with the NoPT symbol

    SourceAIM 5-4-20; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.7, 15, 19

13. Question 13 · IR.VI.B.K1

    On an IFR enroute chart, you see a VOR with the symbol that has two concentric squares around the station compass rose, and another VOR with only one. What does each mean?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • VOR with one square (outer ring): standard VOR — may be used for IFR navigation within standard service volumes
    • VOR with two concentric squares: VOR/DME — co-located DME transponder enables distance readout
    • VOR + TACAN at same location = VORTAC symbol (with the extra appendages on the sides)
    • Underlined frequency on the chart: no voice capability on that frequency (e.g., certain TACOMs are TACAN-only)
    • MON (Minimum Operational Network): VORs designated to remain as a backup nav aid in GPS outage scenarios — marked with 'MON' on charts

    Common wrong answers

    • Not knowing VORTAC vs. VOR/DME vs. VOR symbols
    • Not knowing underlined frequency means no voice
    • Not knowing MON designation

    SourceAIM 1-1-7; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.9

14. Question 14 · IR.VI.B.K1

    Decode the following approach plate information and determine if you need an alternate: Destination TAF shows 'TEMPO 0914/0916 1/4SM FG OVC001'. Your ETA is 0915Z.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • TEMPO 0914/0916: temporary conditions expected from 0914Z to 0916Z
    • Conditions: 1/4 SM visibility in fog, OVC at 100 feet AGL
    • Your ETA of 0915Z is WITHIN the TEMPO period
    • Even though TEMPO conditions are temporary, they are forecast WITHIN the 1-hour window of your ETA
    • The 1-2-3 rule window is 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA (0815Z to 1015Z)
    • During this window: 1/4 SM is FAR below the 3 SM minimum; OVC001 (100 feet) is far below 2,000 feet
    • YES — an alternate is absolutely required
    • The alternate itself must have forecast conditions meeting precision alternate minimums (600/2) or non-precision (800/2) during that same window

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking TEMPO conditions don't trigger the alternate requirement because they're temporary
    • Not applying the 1-2-3 rule to the TEMPO forecast period
    • Forgetting to check alternate minimums for the same window

    Source14 CFR §91.169(b); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

15. Question 15 · IR.VI.B.K1

    You're shooting the VOR approach to Runway 23. The approach plate shows circling minimums only — no straight-in minimums. The runway is 23 (southwest). The VOR is to the northeast. Explain why there are no straight-in minimums and what you need to do differently on this approach.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Straight-in minimums are published when: (1) the final approach course is aligned within 30° of the runway, and (2) the approach can be flown so that the descent is no steeper than specified (300 FPM per NM from threshold)
    • If the final approach course alignment exceeds 30° from the runway centerline: only circling minimums are published
    • Circling minimums are higher than straight-in and require maneuvering in the airport traffic pattern to align with the landing runway
    • Circling MDA must be maintained until you are in position for a normal descent to the landing runway
    • Do NOT let down below MDA until continuously in position for a normal approach to landing
    • If you lose visual contact while circling: execute missed approach from the circling position; climb to circling MDA on runway heading, then follow published missed approach

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking circling minimums mean you can fly any path below MDA as long as you see the field
    • Not maintaining MDA until in position for a normal descent
    • Not knowing the 30° alignment rule for straight-in minimums

    SourceAIM 5-4-20; 14 CFR §91.175; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.19

16. Question 16 · IR.VI.B.K1

    You are flying an RNAV (GPS) RWY 15 approach. You see three sets of minimums: LPV DA 252/18 (200), LNAV/VNAV DA 360/18 (307), LNAV MDA 480/1 (445-1). Your aircraft has WAAS. The GPS annunciates 'LNAV/VNAV' approaching the FAF. What minimums do you fly and why? What could have caused the downgrade from LPV?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Fly LNAV/VNAV minimums: DA 360 feet MSL (307 feet HAT), visibility 18 (which is RVR 1800 feet)
    • The GPS downgraded from LPV to LNAV/VNAV — possible causes: insufficient WAAS signal accuracy at this location, WAAS NOTAM, satellite geometry issue, or WAAS outage
    • LNAV/VNAV still provides vertical guidance (glidepath) — fly to DA, not MDA
    • If further downgrade to LNAV occurs: now fly to MDA (480 feet MSL / 445 feet HAT), 1 SM visibility — non-precision
    • The best practice: brief all three lines of minimums before the approach so you're ready for any annunciation

    Common wrong answers

    • Continuing to fly LPV minimums when the GPS shows LNAV/VNAV (too low — dangerous)
    • Not knowing LNAV/VNAV still uses DA not MDA
    • Not knowing the HAT value (height above TDZE) from the number in parentheses

    SourceAIM 5-4-18; FAA-H-8083-16B; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.16

17. Question 17 · IR.VI.B.K1

    You are established on the ILS localizer on a 5-mile final. ATC says: 'Traffic, 12 o'clock, 3 miles, opposite direction, altitude unknown.' You are in IMC. What are your immediate actions?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • In IMC: you cannot visually acquire the traffic
    • Immediately advise ATC: 'Unable visual traffic, IMC, request resolution'
    • ATC is responsible for IFR-to-IFR separation — they should not have put you in conflict if both aircraft are IFR
    • If the other aircraft is VFR in IMC: ATC may not have radar on them
    • If TCAS installed: monitor for Resolution Advisory (RA) — if RA issued, follow it even if it conflicts with ATC instruction
    • If ATC issues a breakout or go-around: comply immediately
    • If no ATC action and immediate collision threat: maneuver to avoid, then advise ATC
    • Your first resource: ATC — your backup: TCAS — your last resort: maneuver

    Common wrong answers

    • Trying to look for traffic while in IMC
    • Continuing approach without alerting ATC
    • Ignoring a TCAS RA in favor of ATC instruction

    SourceAIM 5-5-15; 14 CFR §91.113; TCAS II concept

18. Question 18 · IR.VI.A.K1

    You are flying an ILS approach. At the outer marker (or OM equivalent), you are fully established on localizer and glideslope. 100 feet above DA, you break out and see the approach lights, but the runway environment is NOT in sight — only the ALS (approach light system). Can you descend below DA?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Per §91.175(c)(3)(ii): with ALS in sight, you may descend to 100 feet ABOVE TDZE (touchdown zone elevation), not below
    • To continue descent below 100 feet above TDZE: you must see the red terminating bars OR red side row bars of the ALS
    • Alternatively, you must see any of the 10 visual references listed in §91.175(c)(3)
    • The 10 references include: approach light system, threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights, REIL, VASI, touchdown zone or markings or lights, runway or markings or lights, runway heading identification lights, ILS-equipped runway touchdown zone lights
    • Bottom line: ALS alone without red bars gets you to 100 AGL above TDZE only — not to the runway

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking ALS in sight allows descent all the way to the runway
    • Not knowing the 100-foot-above-TDZE limitation
    • Confusing DA (decision altitude on ILS) with MDA (non-precision)

    Source14 CFR §91.175(c)(3); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

19. Question 19 · IR.VI.B.K1

    What are the ILS categories and their associated minimums?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • CAT I ILS: DA 200 feet AGL, RVR 2,400 feet (visibility 1/2 SM if RVR not available)
    • CAT II ILS: DA 100 feet AGL, RVR 1,200 feet — requires special aircraft certification, pilot training, and airport equipment
    • CAT IIIa ILS: DA below 100 feet (or no DH), RVR not less than 700 feet
    • CAT IIIb ILS: DA below 50 feet (or no DH), RVR 150-700 feet
    • CAT IIIc ILS: No DH, no RVR limitation — zero-zero (not currently authorized in the US)
    • CAT I is standard; CAT II and III require special authorization and equipped airport

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking CAT II minimums are the same as CAT I
    • Not knowing CAT III has multiple sub-categories
    • Believing any ILS-equipped aircraft can fly CAT II/III approaches

    Source14 CFR §91.175; FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

20. Question 20 · IR.VI.A.K2

    What visual references are required to continue below MDA or DA on an instrument approach? (§91.175(c))

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Three conditions to descend below MDA or DA (ALL three must be met):
    • 1. Flight visibility must not be less than the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure
    • 2. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a normal landing can be made
    • 3. At least one of the 10 specific visual references for the runway is distinctly visible and identifiable
    • The 10 references: (1) approach light system, (2) threshold, (3) threshold markings, (4) threshold lights, (5) REIL, (6) VASI/PAPI, (7) touchdown zone or markings, (8) touchdown zone lights, (9) runway or markings, (10) runway lights
    • If flying MDA: must be in a position from which a NORMAL descent to landing is possible at normal descent rate
    • If conditions deteriorate below minimums AFTER passing DA/MDA: may continue if one of above criteria met

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking any light counts as a visual reference
    • Not knowing all 3 conditions must be met simultaneously
    • Thinking you can descend if you see the rotating beacon of the airport

    Source14 CFR §91.175(c); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

21. Question 21 · IR.VI.C.K1

    What are the outer marker substitutes allowed per §91.175(k)?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • When no outer marker is available, an OM can be substituted by: (mnemonic helps: CPA DVN)
    • C — Compass locator (colocated with middle or outer marker)
    • P — PAR (Precision Approach Radar) — controller advises when over the outer marker position
    • A — ASR (Airport Surveillance Radar) — same as PAR advisory
    • D — DME from an associated VORTAC or VOR/DME
    • V — VOR from an appropriate facility
    • N — NDB from an appropriate facility
    • RNAV fix (GPS waypoint at the OM location)
    • These substitutes allow descent below the OM/FAF to the final approach
    • The substitute must be specifically listed on the approach chart or authorized in the procedure notes

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking any DME or VOR can substitute (must be the associated facility for that approach)
    • Not knowing RNAV fix is allowed as an OM substitute
    • Confusing OM with FAF

    Source14 CFR §91.175(k); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

22. Question 22 · IR.VI.F.K1

    You are inbound on an ILS. At 500 feet AGL, visibility is reported at 3/4 SM — the ILS minimum. You break out at exactly DA (200 AGL) and see the runway. Your approach speed is 80 KTAS. Can you land? Walk me through the 3 conditions you must meet.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Condition 1: Flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed — 3/4 SM reported meets the standard (the pilot assesses flight visibility, not just reported RVR/visibility)
    • Condition 2: Aircraft is in a position from which a normal landing can be made — at 200 AGL on speed and on glideslope, yes
    • Condition 3: At least one of the 10 visual references is distinctly visible — runway in sight satisfies this
    • All 3 conditions met: yes, you can continue and land
    • Important nuance: the regulation says 'flight visibility' — the pilot must assess actual visibility from the cockpit, not just rely on the ATIS report
    • If flight visibility appears less than the prescribed minimum even though ATIS says otherwise: go missed

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking reported RVR automatically determines if you can land
    • Not knowing all 3 conditions are SIMULTANEOUS requirements
    • Going missed because visibility is exactly at minimums (not below)

    Source14 CFR §91.175(c); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

23. Question 23 · IR.VI.A.K3

    On an ILS approach chart, you see a small 'A' inside an inverted triangle (▽A) symbol next to the airport in the briefing strip. What does this mean and what do you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • The ▽A symbol means: non-standard alternate minimums apply to this airport
    • Alternate minimums higher than standard (600-2 precision / 800-2 non-precision) are published in the TPP Take-Off Minimums and Alternate Requirements section
    • You must look up the alternate minimums for that airport in that section before using it as an alternate
    • If the airport shows 'NA' (not authorized): the airport may NOT be filed as an alternate under any circumstances
    • Common reasons for non-standard alternate mins: unmonitored ILS, no weather reporting, partial NAVAID coverage

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking standard 600/2 or 800/2 applies when ▽A is shown
    • Not knowing where to find the published alternate minimums
    • Confusing ▽A (non-standard) with NA (not authorized)

    Source14 CFR §91.169; AIM 5-4-7; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.6

24. Question 24 · IR.VI.A.K3

    An RNAV approach chart shows: 'LNAV/VNAV DA 960 (300-3/4)' and 'LNAV MDA 1,000 (340-1)' and 'LPV DA 840 (180-1/2).' Decode these minimums and explain which applies to your C172S G1000 WAAS GPS.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • LPV DA 840 (180-1/2): Decision Altitude 840 MSL, height above TDZE 180 feet, visibility 1/2 SM — applies to WAAS GPS receivers; this is precision approach quality guidance
    • LNAV/VNAV DA 960 (300-3/4): Decision Altitude 960 MSL, 300 feet AGL, visibility 3/4 SM — applies to baro-VNAV equipped aircraft (requires specific certification); also applies to some WAAS receivers without LPV capability
    • LNAV MDA 1,000 (340-1): Minimum Descent Altitude 1,000 MSL, 340 feet AGL, 1 SM visibility — non-precision; applies to all GPS receivers including non-WAAS
    • C172S G1000 with WAAS: if CDI annunciates LPV, fly LPV minimums; if it downgrades to LNAV/VNAV or LNAV, fly those respective minimums
    • DA vs MDA: DA = decision altitude for precision/APV (look to land or go missed immediately); MDA = minimum descent altitude for non-precision (do not descend below, circle if needed)

    Common wrong answers

    • Flying LPV minimums when the receiver shows LNAV
    • Confusing DA (go missed AT DA) with MDA (circle at MDA)
    • Not knowing LNAV/VNAV requires specific certification beyond just having vertical guidance displayed

    SourceAIM 5-4-5; FAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 10; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.13

25. Question 25 · IR.VI.A.K3

    An approach chart shows the following in the missed approach section: 'Climb to 800 then climbing LEFT turn to 2000 direct DILLS and hold.' Your runway heading is 090°. After executing a missed approach, what heading do you turn to and in which direction?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Execute missed approach immediately: full power, flaps up (per POH — verify checklist), positive rate climb
    • Climb STRAIGHT AHEAD (on runway heading 090°) to 800 feet MSL
    • At 800 feet: begin a LEFT turn toward DILLS (the published missed approach holding fix)
    • Continue climbing to 2,000 feet MSL while turning to DILLS
    • Enter the published hold at DILLS and wait for further clearance
    • Key: the missed approach procedure must be followed exactly as published — any deviation requires ATC coordination
    • If on GLS/ILS: upon missed approach, do NOT fly back through the localizer course unless instructed

    Common wrong answers

    • Turning immediately before reaching 800 feet
    • Turning right instead of the published left turn
    • Not knowing to contact ATC immediately on missed approach

    SourceAIM 5-4-21; FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH) Chapter 10

26. Question 26 · IR.VI.A.K3

    An approach plate shows a VDP symbol on the profile view. What is a VDP and how do you calculate it?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • VDP (Visual Descent Point): a defined point on the final approach course from which a normal descent from MDA to the runway can begin — results in a normal 3° (approximately 300 FPNM) glidepath to the landing zone
    • Purpose: without a VDP, pilots might dive from MDA to the runway which is dangerous and results in landing long
    • Published VDP: shown on the plan view or profile view with a V symbol; distance from runway threshold given
    • Manual calculation formula: VDP (NM from threshold) = MDH ÷ 300 (where MDH = MDA in feet above TDZE)
    • Example: MDA 700 feet MSL, TDZE 400 feet → MDH = 300 feet → VDP = 300 ÷ 300 = 1.0 NM from runway threshold
    • If you cannot see the runway at the VDP: go missed approach immediately — descending after the VDP results in a dangerously steep descent

    Common wrong answers

    • Forgetting VDP is a non-precision approach feature (not used on ILS approaches with glideslope)
    • Not knowing the formula MDH/300
    • Not knowing what to do if the runway isn't in sight at the VDP

    SourceAIM 5-4-5; FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH) Chapter 10; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.19

27. Question 27 · IR.VI.A.K3

    You are briefing an ILS approach plate. The minimums section shows: S-ILS 15 | 200 (200-1/2) | CIRCLING | A 420-1 | B 420-1 | C 460-1¼. You are in a C172 at 95 KIAS. Which minimums row applies and which circling minimum applies?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • S-ILS 15: Straight-in ILS minimums to runway 15. DA 200 feet (height 200 AGL), visibility 1/2 SM. This is the precision approach minimum.
    • C172 at 95 KIAS: Aircraft approach category is based on 1.3 × Vso (power-off stall speed in landing configuration)
    • C172N Vso approximately 40 KIAS → 1.3 × 40 = 52 KIAS → Category A (0-90 KIAS approach speed)
    • Category A circling minimums: MDA 420 feet, visibility 1 SM
    • Circling approach: more maneuvering required; higher minimums apply; aircraft stays within Category A radius of 1.3 NM from runway
    • If approach speed >91 KIAS but ≤121 KIAS: Category B; C172 at 95 KIAS is Category B → would use B minimums
    • Key: approach category is based on approach SPEED used, not aircraft type — if flying faster than Category A, use Category B

    Common wrong answers

    • Using aircraft type instead of approach speed to determine category
    • Not knowing categories: A<91, B 91-121, C 121-141, D 141-166 KIAS
    • Thinking straight-in minimums apply for a circling approach

    Source14 CFR §97.3; AIM 5-4-7; FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH) Chapter 10

28. Question 28 · IR.VI.A.K1

    You are flying an ILS approach. At the middle marker, you are 300 feet above DA — significantly above glideslope. The runway is in sight. A passenger says 'just land, we can see it.' What do you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Do NOT descend below DA until you are at DA and all three conditions of §91.175(c) are met
    • Being above glideslope at the middle marker means you are NOT established on the ILS — you cannot guarantee a normal landing
    • Passenger pressure is classic 'get-there-itis' and 'external pressure' in the PAVE model
    • Execute missed approach: conditions not met — you are above glideslope and high
    • Key: even though the runway is visible, the aircraft is not in a position from which a NORMAL landing can be made — this is §91.175(c)(1) (position-for-normal-landing). The subsections are: (c)(1) position; (c)(2) flight visibility; (c)(3) visual references.
    • Document the reason for the missed approach and request vectors or another approach

    Common wrong answers

    • Continuing because runway is visible
    • Not knowing §91.175(c)(2) requires 'normal landing position'
    • Succumbing to passenger/external pressure

    Source14 CFR §91.175(c); PHAK Chapter 2 (ADM); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

29. Question 29 · IR.VI.A.K2

    You are flying a VOR approach. The published minimums are MDA 940 feet MSL / TDZE 620 feet = 320 feet AGL, visibility 1 SM. You descend to MDA but the airport is not in sight. You reach the MAP (missed approach point). The airport is not visible. What do you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • At the MAP with airport not in sight: execute the published missed approach immediately — no exceptions
    • Cannot descend below MDA unless all 3 §91.175(c) conditions are met
    • Cannot delay the missed approach hoping the airport appears after the MAP
    • Published missed approach: execute immediately — climbing turn or climb straight ahead as charted
    • Contact ATC on the missed approach: advise you are executing missed approach
    • Request new approach clearance or vectors
    • Key: you cannot stay at MDA and circle beyond the MAP — the MAP is the definitive decision point

    Common wrong answers

    • Continuing past the MAP hoping to see the airport
    • Descending below MDA on a non-precision approach without visual reference
    • Not contacting ATC on the missed approach

    Source14 CFR §91.175(c); 14 CFR §91.175(e); AIM 5-4-21; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

30. Question 30 · IR.VI.E.K1

    You are asked to fly a circling approach to Runway 27. During the circling maneuver at MDA, you lose visual contact with the runway. What do you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Immediately execute missed approach
    • The requirement: visual contact with the runway environment must be maintained throughout the circle — §91.175(c)
    • When visual contact is lost during circling: immediately commence a climbing turn toward the landing runway (runway 27 in this case) to return to the missed approach protection area
    • Why turn toward the runway? The missed approach obstacle clearance protects you near the runway — turning away from it takes you into unprotected airspace
    • After initiating climbing turn: follow the published missed approach procedure from the approach fix
    • Key: the circling area provides 300 feet obstacle clearance — once you leave it in IMC without visual reference, you have no protection guarantee

    Common wrong answers

    • Continuing to circle hoping visual will re-establish
    • Turning away from the runway on missed approach during circling
    • Not knowing which direction to turn initially on a circling missed approach

    Source14 CFR §91.175(c); AIM 5-4-21; FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH) Chapter 10

31. Question 31 · IR.VI.B.K2

    What is a NOTAM indicating 'ILS RWY 6 GS U/S' telling you, and what are your approach options?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • GS U/S = Glideslope Unserviceable (out of service)
    • Without the glideslope: you CANNOT fly the full ILS to ILS minimums (200-foot DA)
    • You CAN fly the Localizer (LOC) approach using only lateral guidance from the localizer
    • LOC approach uses a higher MDA (non-precision minimums) since there is no vertical guidance — typically 400-600 feet AGL
    • Check the approach chart for LOC minimums row in the minimums table
    • The LOC approach is a separate published approach or the ILS chart may have a LOC-only row
    • Practical note: without vertical guidance, you use step-down fixes or MDA; descent profile is pilot-managed

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking glideslope out = can't fly the approach at all
    • Flying to ILS minimums (200-foot DA) without a glideslope
    • Not knowing the LOC-only minimums are higher than ILS minimums

    SourceAIM 5-4-5; 14 CFR §91.175; NOTAMs

32. Question 32 · IR.VI.A.K2

    What are cold temperature altitude corrections for instrument approaches, and when are they required?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Cold air is denser than standard — altimeters over-read in very cold temperatures, meaning the aircraft is LOWER than indicated
    • FAA publishes a Cold Temperature Error table (AIM 7-3-4, Table 7-3-1) based on temperature vs. altitude above the airport
    • When required: at airports where cold temperature corrections are mandatory — FAA publishes these airports in the Airport Facility Directory and NOTAMs
    • Segments affected: corrections apply from IAF to the missed approach — ALL segments from the initial approach fix through the missed approach
    • Exception: final approach fix altitude — must notify ATC of corrected altitude for all fixes EXCEPT the FAF
    • Application: pilot must add the correction to published altitudes and fly the corrected (higher) altitude
    • Why not FAF? FAA has determined the approach profile below the FAF is protected by the glideslope or obstacle clearance design for cold temp corrections at those airports

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking cold temperature correction only applies to the MDA
    • Not knowing corrections apply from IAF through missed approach
    • Forgetting to notify ATC of corrected altitudes (except FAF)
    • Not knowing which airports require it — must check NOTAM and A/FD

    SourceAIM 7-3-4; AIM Chapter 7 Section 3; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.19

33. Question 33 · IR.VI.A.K2

    A NOTAM says 'KLUF REIL RWY 24 U/S.' How does this affect your approach to Runway 24?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • REIL U/S = Runway End Identifier Lights out of service
    • REILs are flashing strobe lights at the runway ends that help identify the approach end of the runway in low visibility
    • REIL is one of the 10 visual references in §91.175(c)(3)
    • If REILs are U/S: that visual reference is unavailable
    • Minimums impact: approach visibility minimums may be increased when certain lighting systems are U/S — check the approach chart notes
    • Most likely: if the approach requires REILs for standard minimums, the visibility minimum increases (usually by 1/4 SM or more)
    • You must apply the increased visibility minimum if published in the approach notes or via NOTAM
    • Practical: do NOT add REIL to your mental 'plan to see' list on short final if they are notamed out

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking REIL out has no effect on minimums
    • Not checking if the approach notes reference REIL for minimum calculation
    • Forgetting REIL is one of the 10 required visual references

    Source14 CFR §91.175(c)(3); AIM 5-4-20; NOTAMs

34. Question 34 · IR.VI.B.K1

    What are the three CDI sensitivity modes on a WAAS GPS approach and when does each apply?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • En-route mode: CDI sensitivity ±5 NM — standard cruise navigation
    • Terminal mode: CDI sensitivity ±1 NM — within 30 NM of destination airport (or when ATC assigns an approach)
    • Approach mode: CDI sensitivity scales down to ±0.3 NM (LNAV/VNAV) or angular (like ILS glidepath) for LPV — final approach segment
    • Transition: the receiver automatically transitions between modes based on distance from airport and approach sequence
    • Why it matters: a full-scale CDI deflection in approach mode (±0.3 NM) is much more sensitive than en-route — a small deviation looks large
    • LPV approach: CDI becomes angular (similar to ILS) at approximately 2 NM from FAF — gets more sensitive as you approach the runway
    • Practical implication: the student must understand that the CDI is getting more sensitive on approach — course corrections must be smaller

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking CDI sensitivity is constant throughout the flight
    • Not knowing when LPV approach mode begins angular scaling
    • Confusing terminal mode trigger distance (30 NM) with approach mode

    SourceAIM 1-1-18; FAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 9; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.13

35. Question 35 · IR.VI.A.K3

    On an approach chart, what does a bold 'C' inside a box near the minimums section mean?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • The 'C' in a box (or boxed C) indicates: Circling approach minimums apply — the approach has circling minimums available for landing on any runway
    • Specifically: it can also indicate that the approach requires circling to land because there is no straight-in alignment possible (more than 30° off runway centerline or steep glidepath)
    • Some plates use a 'C' symbol to indicate non-standard circling minimums or that circling is the primary approach method
    • Key: the student should identify whether the approach has straight-in minimums AND circling minimums, or ONLY circling minimums
    • Where it appears: minimums section of the approach chart, usually in the top line of the visibility/MDA row

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking 'C' means the approach is cancelled
    • Not knowing circling-only approaches exist when runway alignment prevents straight-in minimums
    • Confusing the boxed C with the alternate minimums triangle A symbol

    SourceFAA Instrument Procedures Handbook; AIM 5-4-20

36. Question 36 · IR.VI.A.K3

    An approach chart shows 'SHARP TT' in the procedure turn section. What does this indicate and when does each letter prevent a procedure turn?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • SHARP TT = the conditions under which a Procedure Turn (PT) or Hold-in-lieu-of-PT (HILPT) is NOT authorized
    • S — Straight-in approach (radar vector to final — no PT needed when vectored)
    • H — Holding fix (when being held at the IAF/IF — you exit the hold inbound)
    • A — Arc (when flying a DME arc to the approach course)
    • R — Radar (when given radar vectors to the final approach course)
    • P — PT not authorized (when 'NoPT' is published on the chart for that course of flight)
    • T — Timed approach (when timed approaches are being conducted from a holding fix)
    • T — (second T) — when published in terms of ATC authorization or specific procedure
    • No PT: fly direct to the course or to a fix on the approach without flying the procedure turn

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking you always have to fly the procedure turn
    • Not knowing NoPT means you must fly straight in on that radial/course
    • Not knowing radar vectors eliminate the PT requirement

    SourceAIM 5-4-9; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.18

37. Question 37 · IR.VI.A.K1

    What is a contact approach, and how does it differ from a visual approach?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Contact approach: an approach in which an IFR pilot elects to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the destination airport; must be explicitly REQUESTED by the pilot (ATC cannot initiate)
    • Conditions for contact approach: reported ground visibility at least 1 SM; pilot must expect to remain clear of clouds throughout the approach; ATC must authorize it
    • Visual approach: EITHER pilot OR ATC may initiate; requires ceiling 1,000 feet and 3 SM visibility (or VFR conditions); pilot reports airport or traffic in sight
    • Key difference: contact approach requires only 1 SM visibility (lower minimum than visual approach); pilot takes responsibility for terrain clearance
    • Contact approach cancels the IFR clearance for the approach segment — pilot navigates visually
    • Visual approach does NOT cancel IFR clearance — ATC still provides separation from other IFR traffic

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking ATC can authorize a contact approach without a pilot request
    • Confusing contact approach (1 SM) with visual approach (1,000/3)
    • Not knowing visual approach maintains IFR clearance while contact approach cancels it for the approach

    SourceAIM 5-4-23; AIM 5-4-22; 14 CFR §91.175

38. Question 38 · IR.VI.A.K3

    When is a procedure turn not authorized? What does 'NoPT' on an approach chart mean?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • NoPT = No Procedure Turn: the procedure turn is not authorized when arriving from that direction/course
    • When NoPT is published: typically on feeder routes or transitions that already align you with the inbound course — a PT would take you back through terrain or traffic
    • When you are being radar vectored to the final approach course: no PT required (ATC has already aligned you)
    • When you are flying the approach from a hold in lieu of procedure turn: exit the hold inbound
    • When ATC says 'cleared straight-in approach': no PT
    • When arriving on a course where NoPT is shown on the chart for that transition
    • Flying a PT when it's not authorized is a deviation and can cause traffic conflicts or obstacle clearance issues

    Common wrong answers

    • Flying a PT when NoPT is published
    • Thinking you can always fly a PT if you want more time to prepare
    • Not knowing ATC vectors eliminate the PT requirement

    SourceAIM 5-4-9; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.18

39. Question 39 · IR.VI.A.R1

    You are cleared for the ILS Runway 28L at KBOS. Weather is 300 OVC and 3/4 SM in heavy rain. You intercept the localizer but notice the glideslope needle is pegged fully down. What do you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Suspect a false glideslope (false glideslope capture) or a glideslope signal issue
    • A glideslope pegged fully down could mean: you are far below the glideslope and chasing it, OR false glideslope at double the angle (approximately 6-7° vs 3°), OR the GS receiver/avionics is unreliable
    • False glideslope: ILS systems generate multiple lobes. A false (second) glideslope exists at approximately 2× the true angle. If you capture it, GS will peg immediately or show you above the false course before diving steeply.
    • Immediate action: fly the LOC approach using LOC-only minimums (higher MDA)
    • Do NOT attempt to fly a glideslope that pegs immediately — this is a strong indication of false or unreliable GS
    • Notify ATC of the glideslope anomaly
    • Brief: revert to non-precision approach, set MDA for the LOC approach

    Common wrong answers

    • Chasing a false or unreliable glideslope toward the ground
    • Not knowing false glideslopes exist on ILS systems
    • Not knowing LOC-only approach is available when GS is unreliable

    SourceFAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 9; AIM 1-1-11; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.15

40. Question 40 · IR.VI.A.K1

    You are 8 miles from the airport on an ILS approach. ATC says: 'N12345, maintain 3,000 until established on the localizer.' You intercept the localizer. Are you established? Can you now descend?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • 'Established on the localizer' means: the aircraft is on the correct course (within final approach course protection) AND stabilized on the approach
    • You are NOT established merely by intercepting the localizer needle — you must be on the published approach course segment (inside the FAF or on the segments specified in the approach procedure)
    • ATC's restriction 'maintain 3,000 until established on the localizer': once established, you may descend per the approach chart
    • When established: CDI is centered or within half-scale deflection AND you are inbound on the final approach course
    • If the altitude restriction is to maintain 3,000 until established: once the CDI stabilizes and you are inbound, you may follow the published glideslope descent profile
    • Key: intercepting the needle at 15° off course is NOT established — full-scale deflection with needle swinging means you are not yet established

    How a DPE follows up

    • If you saySays established when needle first moves

      DPE follow-upIs 'needle moving' the same as being established on the localizer?

      What it testsUnderstands the needle moving simply means you have intercepted the signal — establishment requires the aircraft to be on the approach course within tolerances

    • If you sayCorrectly identifies established as centered CDI inbound

      DPE follow-upATC also says 'cross FABER at or above 3,000.' FABER is a step-down fix before the FAF. You are established and below FABER. What altitude do you cross FABER at?

      What it testsStep-down fix crossing restrictions during the approach

    SourceAIM 5-4-6; AIM 5-5-8; 14 CFR §91.175

41. Question 41 · IR.VI.A.K1

    You are cleared for the ILS approach. At the outer marker, you are 200 feet above the glideslope and 1 dot high on the CDI. You are inside the FAF. The weather is 300 OVC and 3/4 SM. What should you do?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Being 1 dot high on the glideslope and above the glideslope crossing altitude at the FAF indicates the approach is not stabilized
    • Stabilized approach criteria: by FAF, the aircraft should be on the glideslope within 1 dot and on the localizer within 1 dot; power and configuration set
    • One option: increase descent rate to rejoin the glideslope — steeper descent increases energy and requires precise technique
    • Risk: in low weather (300 OVC, 3/4 SM), an unstabilized approach increases the chance of landing long or hard
    • Best practice (and ACS standard): if not stabilized by FAF with low ceilings — execute a missed approach and re-enter for another attempt
    • Trying to salvage an unstabilized approach in IMC at low minimums is a leading cause of approach accidents
    • Communicate: advise ATC of missed approach

    How a DPE follows up

    • If you saySays chase the glideslope and continue

      DPE follow-upWhat is the stabilized approach criteria in the ACS for the final segment?

      What it testsACS requires stabilized approach by specified altitude — 1 dot high past FAF in 300 OVC does not meet this

    • If you sayGoes missed

      DPE follow-upGood call. What causes a pilot to be above the glideslope at the outer marker?

      What it testsCommon causes: too fast on the approach, receiving vectors at too high an altitude, not starting descent when established

    SourceFAA-S-ACS-8C; AC 120-71B; FAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 10

42. Question 42 · IR.VI.B.K1

    What is an LDA (Localizer-type Directional Aid) approach and how does it differ from a standard localizer approach?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • LDA = Localizer-type Directional Aid: a precision-like approach using a localizer course aligned more than 3° off the runway centerline (up to 30°)
    • Standard localizer is within 3° of runway centerline; LDA exceeds that
    • LDA provides same lateral guidance as a localizer — CDI sensitivity is identical
    • LDA may or may not have a glideslope: with GS = LDA/GS approach with DA; without GS = non-precision with MDA
    • Because of the offset alignment, LDA approaches require a sidestep or visual correction to align with the runway on short final
    • Published on charts as 'LDA RWY XX' — often used when terrain prevents straight-in ILS alignment
    • Example: Washington Reagan National (DCA) has a famous LDA/GS approach with a turn onto final over the Potomac

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking LDA is just an offset ILS with the same minimums
    • Not knowing LDA may lack a glideslope
    • Not knowing the alignment offset creates a sidestep requirement on short final

    SourceAIM 1-1-11; FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH) Chapter 10

43. Question 43 · IR.VI.C.K1

    What is a back-course (BC) localizer approach and what special consideration is required?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Back-course: uses the localizer's reverse signal — the localizer transmits in both directions; the front course is the published ILS; the back course uses the rear portion
    • Course guidance: when flying the back course inbound, the localizer needle is REVERSE SENSING if you use a standard CDI
    • Reverse sensing: if the needle deflects right, you turn LEFT (opposite of normal) — if not corrected for, pilot can rapidly deviate
    • Correction options: (1) fly reverse sensing mentally; (2) use an HSI or CDI that can be set to the back-course inbound heading (automatically corrects reverse sensing); (3) on G1000/GTN systems, selecting the BC approach automatically corrects sensing
    • No glideslope on BC approaches: non-precision only — fly to MDA
    • Use published step-down fixes and MDA; back-course approaches tend to have higher minimums
    • Not all airports have back-course approaches — must be specifically charted

    Common wrong answers

    • Chasing the needle in the wrong direction (reverse sensing)
    • Thinking back-course has a glideslope
    • Not knowing HSI or G1000 automatically corrects sensing when BC mode is selected

    SourceFAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 9; AIM 1-1-11

44. Question 44 · IR.VI.A.K2

    You are flying an NDB approach. At the FAF, you check the ADF and the needle is pointing 180° from the published inbound bearing. What does this mean?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • ADF needle pointing 180° from the published inbound bearing: your aircraft has passed OVER the NDB and the needle has swung around — you have passed the station
    • If at the FAF, this means you flew OVER the FAF beacon and are now past it — you are beyond the final approach fix
    • Correct position: before the FAF, the ADF needle should point ahead toward the beacon (inbound bearing matches); at the station, the needle rotates; past the station, needle points behind
    • What to do: assess your position — if you passed the FAF without descending, you are inside the FAF at an inappropriate altitude; go missed and re-brief the approach
    • Lesson: must track inbound to FAF and start descent when crossing the NDB station (needle swings)
    • NDB approaches require careful attention — the ADF station passage is your signal to begin descent to MDA

    How a DPE follows up

    • If you saySays continue the approach

      DPE follow-upIf you are past the FAF without having descended, where are you on the approach?

      What it testsStudent must recognize the geometry — past the FAF at excessive altitude = unstabilized; missed approach required

    SourceFAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 9; FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH) Chapter 10

45. Question 45 · IR.VI.A.K3

    An approach plate shows two sets of minimums: 'S-ILS 22R' and 'S-LOC 22R.' What is the difference and when would you use each?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • S-ILS 22R: straight-in ILS minimums using both localizer AND glideslope — precision approach; has a DA (e.g., 200-foot AGL DA, 1/2 SM)
    • S-LOC 22R: straight-in localizer-only minimums — non-precision; used when glideslope is inoperative or not certified; has an MDA (higher altitude, more visibility required)
    • When to use S-LOC: (1) your aircraft GS receiver is inoperative; (2) GS is NOTAMed U/S; (3) you are flying to an ILS approach but have advisory GS only (not certified); (4) you choose to fly a non-precision LOC approach
    • The S-LOC MDA is always higher than the S-ILS DA — because without vertical guidance, more protection is required
    • Using S-ILS when GS is U/S would put you below the correct MDA — dangerous and not authorized

    Common wrong answers

    • Flying to S-ILS minimums without a glideslope
    • Not knowing S-LOC MDA is always higher than S-ILS DA
    • Thinking S-LOC requires a separate approach clearance from S-ILS

    Source14 CFR §91.175; AIM 5-4-5