Cessna 172S G1000 Departure Procedures — Instrument Rating Oral Questions

DPE oral questions · departure procedures

8 questions a DPE may ask in this section

1. Question 1 · IR.V.A.K1

   You receive your IFR clearance by phone at a non-towered airport. The clearance void time is 15 minutes from now. You depart on time, but immediately enter solid IMC at 400 feet AGL. At 1,200 feet you realize you haven't contacted Departure and your radio isn't working. Walk me through your actions.

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Squawk 7600 immediately (lost communications code)
   • Follow §91.185 lost comm procedures — the clearance void time already passed? No — you departed within the void time, so you have ATC's last clearance still active
   • Fly the route in the clearance; maintain the assigned altitude or MEA (highest of MEA, Expected, Assigned)
   • Try all communication options: both COM radios, different frequencies, 121.5 MHz emergency frequency
   • Check volume, squelch, frequency entry — many lost comm events are pilot error
   • If truly no radio: squawk 7600, continue to destination per clearance, begin approach at filed ETA
   • ATC will clear the airspace when they see squawk 7600

   Common wrong answers

   • Forgetting to squawk 7600
   • Not trying all available frequencies including 121.5
   • Descending below MEA without authorization

   Source14 CFR §91.185; AIM 6-4-1; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.18

2. Question 2 · IR.V.B.K1

   What is a VCOA (Visual Climb Over Airport) procedure and when is it used?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • A VCOA is an IFR departure option for aircraft in VMC that cannot meet a steep published climb gradient
   • Pilot climbs visually over the airport to a published 'climb to' altitude before proceeding on the instrument portion
   • Designed when obstacles beyond 3 SM from the DER require a climb gradient greater than 200 FPNM
   • Must advise ATC as early as possible before departure of intent to fly VCOA
   • Must remain VMC while circling — cannot be flown in IMC
   • Published in the TPP Take-Off Minimums and Departure Procedures section

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking VCOA can be flown in IMC (it cannot — requires VMC)
   • Not advising ATC before departure
   • Confusing VCOA with a contact approach

   SourceAIM 5-2-9; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.7

3. Question 3 · IR.V.B.K1

   What is the standard climb gradient assumed for obstacle clearance on departure, and how do you convert climb gradient to climb rate?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Standard departure climb gradient: 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM)
   • Conversion formula: Climb Rate (FPM) = Gradient (FPNM) × Groundspeed (knots) ÷ 60
   • Example: 200 FPNM at 90 knots GS = 200 × 90 ÷ 60 = 300 FPM
   • For steeper published gradients: use same formula with the published gradient
   • Enroute obstacle clearance climb gradients: 150 FPNM below 5,000 MSL; 120 from 5,000–10,000; 100 above 10,000

   Common wrong answers

   • Using FPM instead of FPNM as the base unit
   • Not knowing to factor in groundspeed (not airspeed)
   • Confusing departure gradient with enroute obstacle clearance gradient

   SourceAIM 5-2-9; Order 8260.3G (TERPS); PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.7

4. Question 4 · IR.V.A.K1

   You are at KXYZ, a non-towered airport. The ODP requires a 400 FPNM climb gradient. Your C172S is heavy (near max gross) on a hot day. Performance charts show you can only achieve 350 FPNM. What are your options?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Calculate whether you can actually meet 400 FPNM: if not, the ODP is operationally unsafe for your aircraft/conditions
   • Options: (1) wait for cooler temperature, (2) depart with less weight/fuel, (3) delay until density altitude improves, (4) use VCOA if published and VMC exists, (5) file an alternate ODP departure if one exists
   • Part 91 pilots are NOT required to comply with ODPs — they are recommended, not mandatory
   • However: if you cannot safely climb away from obstacles, departing IFR is a safety risk regardless of legality
   • VCOA option: if published, climb visually to the published 'climb to' altitude in VMC, then proceed IFR
   • Practical answer: if you cannot meet the gradient and there is no VCOA and it is IMC — do not depart

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking ODP compliance is mandatory for Part 91
   • Not knowing VCOA as an alternative
   • Not cross-checking performance charts against the ODP gradient

   SourceAIM 5-2-9; 14 CFR §91.175(f); FAA-H-8083-16B (IPH)

5. Question 5 · IR.V.B.K1

   What does a 'Trouble T' (T with a bold outline) on an approach chart or departure procedure indicate?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • The Trouble T (formally: black bold T inside a triangle) indicates: Non-standard takeoff minimums AND/OR departure procedures exist for this airport
   • Pilots must check the Takeoff Minimums and Departure Procedures section of the TPP before departing
   • The symbol means: either a non-standard takeoff minimum applies, OR an ODP is published, OR both
   • Part 91 pilots: no takeoff minimums legally required, but ODP is published for obstacle clearance purposes
   • Part 121/135 operators: MUST comply with published takeoff minimums

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking the Trouble T means the approach is restricted
   • Not checking the TPP for the departure procedure after seeing the Trouble T
   • Thinking Part 91 is exempt from needing to read published minimums

   SourceAIM 5-2-8; 14 CFR Part 97

6. Question 6 · IR.V.A.K1

   You are departing a non-towered airport IFR. You receive your clearance over the phone: cleared as filed, depart runway 28, climb 3000 feet, contact departure 123.9. You are given a void time of 1415Z. It is now 1410Z and you have a mechanical issue — you cannot depart by 1415Z. What do you do?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Void time means: your clearance expires if you do not DEPART by that time (be airborne with gear leaving the runway)
   • If you cannot depart by the void time: IMMEDIATELY notify ATC (by phone or radio) that you will not make the void time
   • ATC needs to know because they have held the airspace protected for your departure
   • After the void time expires without notifying ATC: ATC initiates search-and-rescue procedures after 30 minutes
   • This is a critical safety issue — do not simply wait and try to depart after the void time
   • Request a new clearance with a new departure time once the mechanical is resolved

   How a DPE follows up

   • If you saySays they would just depart after fixing the issue

     DPE follow-upIf you depart 10 minutes after the void time without notifying ATC — what is ATC doing?

     What it testsAfter void time with no contact, ATC initiates SAR — you could cause an unnecessary SAR response

   • If you sayCalls ATC immediately

     DPE follow-upThe field has no radio comms and you reached the clearance delivery by phone — the phone line is busy. What next?

     What it testsUrgency of notification — try all available means; missing void time without notification triggers SAR

   SourceAIM 5-2-7; 14 CFR §91.185

7. Question 7 · IR.V.A.K2

   What is the standard climb gradient assumed by instrument departure procedures? How do you convert it to FPM?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Standard assumed climb gradient: 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM) from the DER (Departure End of Runway)
   • The aircraft is also assumed to cross the DER at 35 feet AGL and reach 400 feet AGL before turning
   • To convert FPNM to FPM: FPM = FPNM × (groundspeed in knots ÷ 60)
   • Example: 200 FPNM at 90 KTAS = 200 × (90/60) = 200 × 1.5 = 300 FPM minimum climb
   • If a published ODP requires more than 200 FPNM (e.g., 340 FPNM for obstacle): pilot must verify aircraft can achieve that rate at departure conditions
   • If the airport has a non-standard gradient published — it will be stated in the ODP text (e.g., 'climb to 3,000 at a minimum of 340 FPNM before turning')

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking 200 FPM is the standard gradient (it's 200 FPNM, which equals ~300 FPM at 90 kts)
   • Not knowing the formula for conversion
   • Confusing FPNM with FPM

   SourceAIM 5-2-9; AIM 5-2-8; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.7

8. Question 8 · IR.V.A.R1

   You have just taken off IFR into IMC. 30 seconds after takeoff at 800 feet AGL, your engine sputters and loses power. You have no altitude to spare. What is your priority order of actions?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • AVIATE first: maintain aircraft control — lower nose to best glide speed immediately
   • Navigate: turn to remain over the departure airport or clear terrain if possible; GPS/instruments show position
   • Communicate: declare MAYDAY on departure frequency or 121.5 if no contact
   • Squawk 7700 if hands are free (autopilot engaged or co-pilot handles)
   • In IMC: you must trust instruments for spatial orientation while also managing the emergency
   • Do NOT attempt to return to the runway in low IMC if altitude is insufficient — forced landing is safer
   • Brief: the 'impossible turn' back to runway requires 1,000+ feet AGL at most airports — at 800 feet it is typically fatal
   • Key: this is a pure ADM question — student must prioritize aircraft control over everything

   How a DPE follows up

   • If you sayImmediately tries to return to the runway

     DPE follow-upAt 800 AGL, in IMC, turning 180° back to the runway — what is your stall risk and altitude loss?

     What it testsThe impossible turn decision — in IMC this is exceptionally dangerous without substantial altitude margin

   • If you sayMaintains best glide, declares emergency

     DPE follow-upYou are in IMC and can't see the ground. How do you maintain best glide attitude?

     What it testsInstruments only in IMC — pitch for best glide airspeed, trust ASI and altimeter

   Source14 CFR §91.3; PHAK Chapter 2; FAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 8