Cessna 172N Enroute Operations — Instrument Rating Oral Questions

DPE oral questions · enroute operations

15 questions a DPE may ask in this section

1. Question 1 · IR.IV.A.K1

   What are the required and position reports in IFR flight? Use MARVELOUS VFR C500 for required reports, and A PTA TEN R for position reports.

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • MARVELOUS VFR C500 — required ATC reports (non-radar environment): Missed approach; Airspeed change ±10 kts or 5% of filed TAS; Reaching a holding fix (time and altitude); VFR on Top altitude changes; Leaving an assigned altitude; Outer marker inbound; Unable to climb/descend 500 FPM; Safety of flight info; Vacating an altitude; Final approach fix (non-precision, non-radar); Radio or navigation failure; Compulsory reporting points (triangle on chart); 500 FPM climb/descent inability; 0 — (3 min ETA deviation in non-radar)
   • A PTA TEN R — position report elements: Aircraft ID; Position; Time; Altitude (or FL); Type of flight plan (I for IFR); Estimate for next reporting point; Name of succeeding reporting point
   • MARVELOUS VFR C500 applies primarily in non-radar IFR environment

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking position reports are always required (only in non-radar or at compulsory points)
   • Not knowing what compulsory reporting points look like on a chart (solid triangle vs. open triangle)
   • Forgetting the 3-minute ETA deviation rule

   SourceAIM 5-3-2, 5-3-3; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.17

2. Question 2 · IR.IV.A.K1

   What are the IFR holding speed limits?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • At or below 6,000 feet MSL: maximum 200 knots IAS
   • 6,001 to 14,000 feet MSL: maximum 230 knots IAS
   • Above 14,000 feet MSL: maximum 265 knots IAS
   • Published holding patterns may have additional speed restrictions noted on the chart
   • Turbine aircraft may be authorized higher speeds by ATC

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking 200 knots is the limit at all altitudes
   • Not knowing the altitudes where limits change
   • Confusing published holding speed restrictions with general limits

   SourceAIM 5-3-8; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.17

3. Question 3 · IR.IV.B.K1

   You are cruising IFR at 8,000 feet, 20 miles from your destination. ATC hasn't given you a descent clearance. You're in solid IMC. What are your options and what should you do?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Do not descend without ATC clearance — you are in controlled airspace under IFR; 8,000 feet is your assigned altitude
   • If approaching the airport and no descent clearance given: advise ATC you need descent clearance
   • If unable to reach ATC and approaching the MEA: query ATC on 121.5, try different frequencies
   • If truly lost comm: follow §91.185 — fly to clearance limit, hold at EFC time, begin approach at filed/expected ETA
   • Never descend below MEA without clearance unless following §91.185 procedures

   Common wrong answers

   • Descending without clearance because the destination is close
   • Not knowing to stay at assigned altitude until cleared
   • Not having the §91.185 procedure committed to memory

   Source14 CFR §91.185; AIM 5-3-3

4. Question 4 · IR.IV.A.K1

   You're IFR at 11,000 feet on V23. ATC gives you a STAR into your destination. The clearance says 'descend via the SUNST1 arrival.' What does 'descend via' authorize you to do?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • 'Descend via' authorizes the pilot to descend along the STAR route AND to descend to the altitude published on the STAR for each waypoint — it is an authorization to fly the published profile
   • It replaces step-by-step descent clearances — you follow the charted altitudes at charted waypoints
   • If ATC says 'cleared to fly the STAR' WITHOUT 'descend via,' you may NOT descend without a separate altitude clearance
   • Any altitude assignment from ATC supersedes the STAR profile for that point

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking 'cleared on the STAR' alone authorizes descent (it does not)
   • Descending below ATC-assigned altitude even with 'descend via'
   • Not understanding the difference between 'cleared via STAR' and 'descend via STAR'

   SourceAIM 5-4-1; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.9

5. Question 5 · IR.IV.A.K1

   On a low-altitude IFR enroute chart, you see a box with an 'R' next to an airway fix. What does the 'R' indicate?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • 'R' = receiving; on a VOR frequency box, it means the VOR is receive-only through the FSS — pilots receive broadcasts from FSS but must transmit on a separate frequency
   • Also: 'R' may stand for 'RNAV required' on certain airway depictions
   • On the frequency box of a NAVAID: the 'R' with the frequency means flight service broadcasts weather/traffic on that frequency — transmit on 122.1 or as published
   • Context matters: 'R' meaning changes by symbol type on the chart

   Common wrong answers

   • Not knowing the FSS transmit/receive distinction
   • Thinking 'R' means the station has restricted use
   • Confusing remote communication outlet symbology

   SourceAIM 5-3-3; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.9

6. Question 6 · IR.IV.A.K1

   What are cold temperature corrections and when must they be applied to an IFR approach?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • Cold temperature corrections compensate for instrument approach altitude errors when temperatures are significantly below standard (ISA = +15°C at sea level, lapse rate of 2°C per 1,000 feet)
   • At very low temperatures, true altitude is LOWER than indicated altitude — the aircraft is actually lower than the altimeter shows
   • AIM 7-3-4 lists cold temperature airports requiring adjustments and which approach segments are corrected
   • All segments from the IAF through to the missed approach point must be cold-corrected (including missed approach altitudes)
   • Notify ATC of each corrected altitude with the exception of the final approach fix crossing altitude
   • Temperature correction table in AIM 7-2-3 / Chart Supplement provides the correction factor

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking cold temp corrections only apply to the final approach segment
   • Not notifying ATC of corrected altitudes
   • Not knowing which airports are listed for cold temp operations in the AIM

   SourceAIM 7-3-4; AIM 7-2-3; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.7

7. Question 7 · IR.III.B.K1

   What is the difference between MEA and MOCA on an IFR enroute chart?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude): ensures both obstacle clearance AND reliable VOR navigation signal reception for the entire route segment
   • MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude): ensures obstacle clearance only; VOR reception guaranteed only within 22 NM of the VOR
   • On the chart: MEA printed above the airway; MOCA printed with an asterisk (*) below the MEA or alongside it
   • You may fly at MOCA if within 22 NM of the defining VOR — but navigation may be unreliable beyond 22 NM
   • Key distinction: both provide 1,000 ft obstacle clearance non-mountainous (2,000 ft mountainous)

   Common wrong answers

   • Thinking MOCA provides full navigation signal coverage
   • Not knowing the 22 NM VOR signal guarantee
   • Flying MOCA when more than 22 NM from the VOR

   Source14 CFR §91.177; AIM 5-3-3; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.16

8. Question 8 · IR.III.B.K2

   What are MCA, MRA, and MAA on IFR enroute charts?

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude): minimum altitude to cross a specific fix to ensure adequate obstacle clearance on the next segment — printed as a flag on the chart with altitude and direction
   • MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude): lowest altitude at which you can receive the NAVAID signal identifying a fix — important for fixes defined by intersection of VOR radials
   • MAA (Maximum Authorized Altitude): highest altitude at which a given airway may be flown — used to avoid interference between airways at different altitudes
   • Symbols: MCA = X-flag with altitude; MRA = R-flag with altitude; MAA = not a flag — printed as MAAXXXXX alongside the MEA

   Common wrong answers

   • Confusing MCA with MRA (both are minimums at fixes but for different reasons)
   • Not knowing MAA exists or thinking you can fly any altitude up to FL600
   • Missing the directional component of MCA (applies when approaching from a specific direction)

   SourceAIM 5-3-4; FAA-H-8083-15B (IFH) Chapter 9

9. Question 9 · IR.V.A.K2

   What are position reports required to include when NOT in radar contact? (A PTA TEN R mnemonic)

   What a DPE expects to hear

   • A — Aircraft identification
   • P — Position (the fix or waypoint)
   • T — Time (time over the fix, in UTC/Zulu)
   • A — Altitude (including 'IFR' or flight level)
   • T — Type of flight plan (IFR)
   • E — ETA at the NEXT reporting point
   • N — Next reporting point
   • R — Remarks (any pertinent information such as weather deviations, equipment issues)
   • Required only in non-radar environment or when ATC requests
   • Common ATC request: 'N12345, say position'

   Common wrong answers

   • Forgetting time or ETA at next fix
   • Not knowing the format when out of radar contact
   • Thinking position reports are always voluntary

   SourceAIM 5-3-2; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.17

10. Question 10 · IR.V.B.K3

    What required ATC reports must you make without being asked? (MARVELOUS VFR C500)

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • M — Missed approach (executed)
    • A — Airspeed change (±10 knots or 5% of filed TAS, whichever greater)
    • R — Reaching a holding fix/point (time and altitude)
    • V — VFR on top altitude change
    • E — ETA change (more than 2 minutes from filed estimate at next reporting point in non-radar)
    • L — Leaving a holding fix (altitude and time)
    • O — Outer marker inbound (if not in radar contact)
    • U — Unforecast weather
    • S — Safety of flight concern
    • VFR — VFR on top requested (when requesting)
    • C500 — Unable to climb or descend at 500 FPM (must report if climb/descent rate less than 500 FPM)
    • Note: some of these are non-radar-only (O, E) and some are always required (M, airspeed, C500, safety)

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking missed approach is only reported if asked
    • Not knowing airspeed changes of ±10 knots must be reported
    • Forgetting the 500 FPM climb/descent reporting requirement

    SourceAIM 5-3-3; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.17

11. Question 11 · IR.V.B.R1

    You're cruising IFR at 9,000 feet. ATC says 'N12345, descend and maintain 6,000.' You are only able to achieve 300 FPM descent due to aircraft configuration. What required report must you make?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Required report: unable to maintain 500 FPM descent — this is a mandatory MARVELOUS VFR C500 report
    • Advise ATC: 'N12345 is unable to comply, descending at approximately 300 FPM due to [reason]'
    • ATC may need to provide separation from traffic below
    • Slow descent rate could affect ATC sequencing — they need to know
    • Also consider: is there a reason you can't descend at 500 FPM? Power setting? Configuration? Altitude?

    Common wrong answers

    • Just descending slowly without reporting
    • Thinking 500 FPM is just guidance not a reportable standard

    SourceAIM 5-3-3; PilotsCafe IFR Quick-Review p.17

12. Question 12 · IR.III.B.K2

    ATC says: 'N12345, descend via the HUBBS2 arrival, cross HUBBS at 11,000, DRABS at 8,000.' You are currently at 15,000. You are on the HUBBS2 arrival. Explain how you comply.

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • 'Descend via' the arrival means: follow the lateral routing AND altitude restrictions of the published STAR
    • The STAR's published altitude restrictions ARE your clearance — you don't need a separate clearance to comply with intermediate fixes
    • 'Cross HUBBS at 11,000' and 'cross DRABS at 8,000' — these are the explicit clearance altitudes for those fixes
    • Procedure: initiate descent to comply with HUBBS at 11,000 (you are at 15,000 — plan descent rate accordingly); then continue to DRABS at 8,000; follow the STAR routing throughout
    • If the STAR has intervening altitude restrictions between your current position and HUBBS: follow those too
    • If NOT given 'descend via': only descend to an ATC-assigned altitude — STAR altitude restrictions are advisory only
    • Critical difference: 'Descend via' makes STAR altitude restrictions MANDATORY; without it, they are advisory

    Common wrong answers

    • Descending directly to the lowest altitude without respecting intermediate restrictions
    • Waiting for additional ATC clearance to descend
    • Not knowing 'descend via' activates all STAR altitude restrictions

    SourceAIM 5-4-1; AIM 5-4-2; AIM 5-3-4

13. Question 13 · IR.III.B.K1

    What is the VOR MON and why does it matter to an IFR pilot?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • MON = Minimum Operational Network
    • As VORs are being decommissioned as part of VOR reduction, the FAA is maintaining a select network of VORs nationwide — the MON
    • Purpose: ensures that if GPS fails, an IFR aircraft can always navigate to a MON airport (equipped with ILS or LOC approach) within 100 NM
    • Provides a GPS-independent backup network for navigation and approach
    • On enroute charts: MON airports are annotated with the MON symbol
    • Significance: if GPS fails en-route, you can navigate to a MON airport using VOR only
    • The MON is designed so that even without GPS, an IFR pilot can safely continue to a landing

    Common wrong answers

    • Not knowing what MON stands for
    • Thinking MON airports have special additional approach procedures
    • Not knowing VORs are being decommissioned

    SourceAIM 1-1-3; FAA VOR MON website

14. Question 14 · IR.III.B.K3

    On a low-altitude IFR enroute chart, you see a navaid frequency underlined. What does the underline mean?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Underlined frequency = no voice transmission available on that frequency
    • The navaid frequency is used for navigation (identifying the station) only — you cannot use it to talk to FSS or a controller
    • This matters for: flight service stations that have associated VOR frequencies for communication — if underlined, FSS communication is not available on that VOR frequency
    • Common example: some VORs are collocated with FSS stations — underlined means the FSS no longer uses that VOR frequency for voice
    • Practical: if you need FSS services (file flight plan, get weather, etc.) at a VOR with underlined frequency, use a different frequency (call FSS directly on 122.2 or other published freq)

    Common wrong answers

    • Thinking underlined means the navaid is restricted
    • Not knowing the underline relates to VOICE communication (not the nav signal)
    • Confusing underlined frequency with a decommissioned navaid

    SourceFAA IFR Enroute Chart User's Guide; AIM 4-1-7

15. Question 15 · IR.III.B.K3

    On a low-altitude IFR enroute chart, you see a shaded (gray) airway segment. What does the shading indicate?

    What a DPE expects to hear

    • Shaded airway: indicates a RESTRICTED or SPECIAL USE airspace overlaying that airway
    • More specifically: certain airways that pass through prohibited areas, restricted areas, or MOAs are depicted with shading
    • The shading signals: you must check the SUA (Special Use Airspace) status for that segment before filing or flying it — it may not be available at all times
    • Also: some shaded MEA designations indicate GPS-only MEA (requires GPS for obstacle clearance guarantee on that segment)
    • Check the NOTAMs and current ARTCC SUA activity for any shaded segment
    • Practical: on your IFR route, if your segment passes through an active restricted area, you need either a clearance or a reroute

    Common wrong answers

    • Ignoring shaded airways as decoration
    • Not knowing to check SUA NOTAMs for shaded segments
    • Confusing shaded airways with an MEA that requires a note

    SourceFAA IFR Enroute Chart User's Guide; AIM 3-4-1